CCNA-Exploration1-Chapter 6

1) How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
ans:
32

2) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
ans:
255.255.255.192

3) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
ans:
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

4) Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
ans:
/27

5) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
ans:
NAT is required for the host A network.

6) What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
ans:
255.255.255.0

7) Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
ans:
This is a network address.

8) What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
ans:
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
varies in length
is used to forward packets

9) What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
ans:
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

10) A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
ans:
172.16.192.160

11) Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
ans:
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

12) What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router will discard the packet.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

13) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192

14) Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
ans:
larger address space
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption

15) Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
ans:
binary ANDing

16) What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
ans:
expanded addressing capabilities

17) Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90

18) Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19) Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.207 /27

20) What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
ans:
a network

21) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
ans:
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22) Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
servers
network printers
routers

CCNA-Exploration1-Chapter 5

1
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2
What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3
In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum

5
Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address

6


Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1

7
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8
What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
**static
standard

10
When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
**The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
**The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11
What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
**gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership

12
What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address

13
Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge

14
What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
**limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15


Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
**4
5
7
8
11

16
Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
**If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19


Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20
What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
**prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21
What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA-Exploration1-Chapter 4

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?

--> a route is installed in the routing table


2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

--> They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.


3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?

--> instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes


4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

--> updates are broadcast at regular intervals

--> broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255


5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

--> will send out an update if there is a failure of a link


6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.

--> EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.


7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

--> It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.


8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

--> RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.

--> Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.


9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

--> Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.


10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

--> route poisoning


11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

--> limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded


12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

--> routing loops

--> inconsistent traffic forwarding

--> inconsistent routing table entries


13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

--> The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.


14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.

--> EIGRP updates are partial.


15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

--> The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.


16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

--> RIPv1

--> EIGRP

--> RIPv2


17. What is a routing loop?

--> a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination


18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

--> inconsistent routing tables

--> incorrectly configured static routes


19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

--> 16


20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

--> adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route


21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?

--> 3

CCNA-Exploration1-Chapter 3

What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?


--> FTP


What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)


--> Application

--> Services


A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)


--> centralized administration

--> security is easier to enforce


What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?


--> Used by the server to resolve names


What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?


--> DNS



What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)


--> DNS

--> SMTP

--> POP



What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)


--> acts as both a client and server within the same communication

--> hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files

--> can be used in client-server networks



Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)


--> HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client

--> Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access



Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)


--> MTA

--> SMTP



As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?


--> Does not support encryption



Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)


--> receives email from the client's MUA

--> passes email to the MDA for final delivery

--> uses SMTP to route email between servers



Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)


--> HTTP

--> HTTPS



A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)


--> Security is difficult to enforce.

--> A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.



Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?


--> Application



Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?


--> 80



What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)


--> Decentralized resources

--> Resource sharing without a dedicated server



What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? (Be careful its asking in Microsoft network)


--> SMB



What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)


--> initiate data exchanges

--> may upload data to servers



What is the role of the OSI application layer?


--> provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network



How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?


--> uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

CCNA-Exploration1-Chapter 2

Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

--> determine pathways for data
--> retime and retransmit data signals
--> manage data flows

Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

--> define the structure of layer specific PDU's
--> outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
--> require layer dependent encapsulations

What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)

--> identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
--> ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
--> enables the reassembly of complete messages

What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

--> supports error detection

Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

--> Physical
--> Data Link

What is a PDU?

--> a layer specific encapsulation

Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

--> originate data flow

Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"

--> an end device

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

--> Network B -- WAN
--> Network C -- LAN
--> Network A -- LAN

Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

--> A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
--> The network is administered by a single organization.
--> A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

--> multiplexing

What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

--> to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

What device is considered an intermediary device?

--> Switch

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B (GREEN AREA)?

--> intermediary

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

--> LAN

Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

--> network

What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

--> the destination host address

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

--> E, F, H, I, J

During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

--> The physical address is added.

What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

--> detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it

What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

--> application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical